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QUESTION 1
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A.    Documents, images, and storage medium
B.    Resolution, compression, and memory
C.    Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
D.    Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When designing the input environment for the proposed Document Management System (DMS), which of the following MUST be considered?

A.    Index fields
B.    Storage media
C.    Type of printers
D.    Postscript (PS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Company.com needs to deliver objects over the web and ensure that only the authorized user can view them even if disconnected from the system. What technology would apply?

A.    Storage management
B.    Digital Rights Management (DRM)
C.    Watermarking
D.    Web control management

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company.com would like to capture incoming invoices and process them through their Accounts Payable (AP) system. Which system would BEST accomplish this?

A.    Image enabled workflow oriented system
B.    SQL database system
C.    Intranet based form processing system
D.    Records management system

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An accounting firm stores electronic images of its clients tax returns in the Electronic Document Management System (EDMS). The company should be MOST concerned with:

A.    document format.
B.    network security.
C.    application integration.
D.    network bandwidth.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Many of the documents to be scanned by Company.com are sales invoices with a yellow background. A feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:

A.    image enhancement.
B.    deskew.
C.    color dropout.
D.    color enhancement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A potential risk to a project could be:

A.    regular Project Manager meetings.
B.    a risk analysis session.
C.    creating an assumptions document.
D.    allowing scope creep.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A client receives over 2,000 laser printed purchase orders daily from 1,188 customers. The scanning staff will scan, index, and perform quality assurance of the documents. Which of the following is the LEAST labor intensive method to perform indexing?

A.    ICR software
B.    Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) software
C.    OCR software
D.    Heads-down indexing

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:

A.    work monitoring.
B.    pending or holding items.
C.    support for multiple queues based on work type.
D.    sorting queues in date order.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?

A.    All-hands meetings and intranet postings
B.    Ethernet and TCP / IP
C.    E-mail and FTP
D.    Project charter and project plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Assuming an average image size of 105 KB, a 700 MB CD -R contains how many images?

A.    10,826
B.    7,580
C.    6,826
D.    15,020

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is required as part of a records storage management solution?

A.    Full-text search and retrieval
B.    Boxes of paper
C.    Retention schedule
D.    Enterprise content management software

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Company.com is generating 10,000 documents a month and is considering if they should goforward with an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution or continue with the existing paper-based storage strategy. Considering the cost of both strategies the customer should:

A.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the long term.
B.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive but easier to implement and has greater
long term benefits.
C.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the near term but becomes less expensive
in the long term.
D.    stay with the current solution because it is considerably less expensive in the long term.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned?

A.    Error handling
B.    Scan-to-folder
C.    Records management
D.    Tracking capability

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Company.com is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process?

A.    The customer has a document capture process.
B.    The customer does not have a records management process.
C.    The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D.    The customer has an informal records management process.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the access level of a user that belongs to both the Administrators and Users groups?

A.    User
B.    Administrator
C.    Power User
D.    Remote Desktop User

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following contains the user profile directory for Microsoft Windows 2000 and XP?

A.    Users
B.    My Documents
C.    Documents and Settings
D.    Application Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?

A.    The document is set to hidden.
B.    The document is locked.
C.    The document was saved as a system document.
D.    The document is owned by the first user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following will MOST likely happen if a laser printer displays `15% fuser remaining’?

A.    The printer will print according to specification.
B.    The printer will stop printing immediately.
C.    The printer will take longer to print.
D.    The printer will print blank sheets of paper.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when removing a paper jam?

A.    Open all the doors in the printer.
B.    Clear the print queue.
C.    Turn the printer off.
D.    Take the printer offline.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following does an out-of-memory error indicate on a printer?

A.    A faulty memory module in the printer.
B.    A postscript print job has been sent to the printer.
C.    A large print job has been sent to the printer.
D.    The printer firmware needs to be updated.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important consideration?

A.    Operating system type of the connected PCs
B.    Location of the wireless router
C.    Number of PCs that will access the network
D.    Number of available Ethernet ports on the router

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A technician suspects the AC voltage into a PC power supply is bad. Which of the following tools would MOST likely be used to confirm the diagnosis?

A.    Multimeter
B.    Oscilloscope
C.    Cable tester
D.    Power supply tester

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician needs to ping a client’s machine that the technician is working on, to ensure that the network card is functioning correctly. Which of the following IP addresses should be used?

A.    10.76.0.1
B.    127.0.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    255.255.255.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).

A.    TELNET
B.    SSH
C.    POP3
D.    FTP
E.    HTTPS

Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?

A.    Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B.    Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C.    Upgrade the out-of-range users’ SSID searching software.
D.    Enable network sharing on the users’ computers that are within range.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A technician turns on a PC and before the computer boots up, the technician is prompted for a password. The technician does not know the password. Which of the following can the technician do to allow access to the PC? (Select TWO).

A.    Set the clear password jumper on the motherboard.
B.    Enter the BIOS setup and select the clear password setting.
C.    Remove the power cord from the power supply and then plug it back in.
D.    Power cycle the PC.
E.    Remove the CMOS battery for 15 minutes.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A technician is renaming files on a PC from a command prompt and is currently in the root of drive
C:. Which of the following commands should the technician use to move to a different directory?

A.    CD
B.    DIR
C.    MD
D.    RD

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is dispatched to a malware infected system. Upon arrival, the technician notices the malware’s pop-up on the screen. Which of the following boot methods would the technician utilize?

A.    Reboot in Safe Mode
B.    Reboot in Recovery Console
C.    Reboot in Last Known Good Configuration
D.    Reboot in System Debug Mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A technician is dispatched to a system that will not go beyond the Windows XP splash screen. Which of the following, after restart, would allow the technician to load Windows XP?

A.    Press F6, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
B.    Press F8, select Debug mode, login
C.    Press F8, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
D.    Press F6, select Debug mode, login

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table.
You have to display ORDER_ID, ORDER_DATE, and CUSTOMER_ID for all those orders that were placed after the last order placed by the customer whose CUSTOMER_ID is 101.
Which query would give you the desired output?
 clip_image002[1]

A.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(order_date)
FROM orders) AND
Customer_id = 101;
B.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ANY (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
C.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
D.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date IN (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer id = 101);

Answer: C

» Read more

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QUESTION 1
You have assigned rights profiles directly to the uses frank and now you want to add another profile. Which command enables you to list profiles directly assigned to frank?

A.    userattr profiles frank
B.    profiles – p frank
C.    useratter -p frank
D.    profiles frank

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26502_01/html/E36219/rights-1.html (see the example 9-1)

» Read more

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QUESTION 1
What determines which bits in an IP address represent the subnet, and which represent the host?

A.    Subnet
B.    unicast
C.    netmask
D.    multicast
E.    broadcast

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two accurately identify features of a Solaris 10 branded zone?

A.    executes in a Solaris 10 global zone
B.    is created by importing a Solaris 10 flash archive
C.    enables Linux binary applications to run unmodified
D.    provides a complete runtime environment for Solaris 9 applications
E.    allows a Solaris 10 global zone to be migrated into a Solaris 10 non-global zone on a Solaris 11 system

Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are troubleshooting a newly installed desktop Oracle Solaris 11 system with a single network interface. From this system, you can connect to other systems within the company intranet, but cannot access any external services (such as websites and email), even when using IP addresses. Examining the routing table confirms that the default route to 192.168.1.1 is missing. DHCP is not used at this site. Which two commands will temporarily mid permanently configure the default route?

A.    ipadm set-gateway 192.168.1.1
B.    route add default 192.168.1.1
C.    ipadm set-default 192.168.1.1
D.    dladm route-add –d 192.168.1.1
E.    echo 192.168.1.1 >/etc/gateway
F.    echo 192.168.1.1 >/etc/defaultrouter

Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
You want the system to generate an email notification each time one of the services has changed its state. Which option would send an email message to the system administrator whenever a service changes to the maintenance state?

A.    Use the setsc command in ALOM to enable the mail alerts to be sent to a specified email address
whenever the fault management facility detects a service change to the maintenance state.
B.    Make an entry in the /etc/syslog.conf file to instruct syslogd to send an email alert when it receives
a message from the SMF facility that a service has changed to the maintenance state.
C.    Use the svccfg setnotify command to create a notification and send an email when a service enters
the maintenance state.
D.    Use the scvadm command to enable the notification service. Set the -gmaintenance option on the
netnotify service to send an email when a service enters the maintenance state.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
How are operating system updates distributed in the Oracle Solaris 11 environment?

A.    Updates are only available to customers with an active support contract. The updates are distributed
through the My Oracle Support web portal and installed in a central location. All software packages are
then updated manually from the command line using the smpatch command.
B.    Patches are download from http: //support.oracle.com either automatically or manually. All software
packages are then updated manually from the command line using the smpatch or patchadd commands.
C.    Software updates are published as packages to a repository. All software packages are then updated
manually from the command line using the pkg command.
D.    Software updates, published as packages to an OS image. All software packages are then updated
manually from the command line using the pkg command.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
User jack, whose account is configured to use the korn shell, logs in and examines the value of his PATH environment variable:
jack@solaris: echo $PATH
/usr/gnu/bin:/usr/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin
There is a shell script in jack’s home directory called useradd:
-r-xr-xr-x 2 jack other 1239 2012-01-05 11:42 useradd
While in his home directory, jack attempts to run the script:
jack@solaris: useradd
What will happen, and why?

A.    He will get a “file not found” error, because the current directory is not in his seaech path.
B.    He will get a “file not found” error, because his home directory is not in his search path.
C.    The useradd script will execute, because jack is in the same directory that the script is located in.
D.    The command /user/sbin/useradd will execute, because it is the last match in the search path.
E.    The command /user/sbin/useradd will execute, because it is the first match in the search path.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
User jack on host solaris attempts to use ssh to log in to host oracle and receives this message:
jack@solaris:~$ ssh oracle
ssh: connect to host oracle port 22: connection refused
What is the problem?

A.    Host oracle does not have a valid host public key.
B.    Host oracle does not have a valid host private key.
C.    Host solaris does not have a valid host public key.
D.    Host does not have a valid host private key.
E.    Host solaris is not configured for host-based authentication.
F.    Host oracle is not configured for host-based authentication.
G.    Host oracle is not running the ssh service.
H.    Host solaris is not running the ssh service.

Answer: G

QUESTION 8
When speaking in an Oracle Support Engineer, you are asked to verify the version of the Solaris 11 build currently running on your system. Which command would display the Solaris 11 build version currently running on your system?

A.    pkg info all
B.    cat /etc/release
C.    cat /etc/update
D.    prtconf | grep -i update
E.    pkg info entire

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to configure an ISCSI target device on your x86 based Oracle Solaris II system. While configuring the iSCSI device, the following error is displayed:
bash: stmfadm: command not found
Which option describes the solution to the problem?

A.    The COMSTAR feature is not supported on the x86 platform. The feature is supported only on the
SPARC platform.
B.    Use the iscsitadm command on the x86 platform when configuring an iSCSI target.
C.    Install the storage-server group package on this system.
D.    Start the iSCSI target daemon on this system.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your SPARC server will not boot into multi user-server milestones and you need to troubleshoot to out why. You need to start the server with minimal services running so that you can go through each milestone manually to troubleshoot the issue.
Select the option that boots the server with the fewest services running.

A.    boot -s
B.    boot milestone none
C.    boot -m milestone=single-user
D.    boot -m milestone=none
E.    boot -m none

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
user1 is attempting to assist user2 with terminating user2’s process 1234.
user1 entered the following: kill -9 1234
Why does the process continue to run?

A.    You can kill a process only if you are root.
B.    You can kill only a process that you own.
C.    You can kill the process only with the pkill command.
D.    You need to kill the process with a stronger kill signal.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your server has one zone named dbzone (hat has been configured, but not yet installed). Which command would you use to view all the options that were used to configure this zone?

A.    zoneadm list -icv dbzone
B.    zones tat –c summary dbzone
C.    zonecfg –z dbzone info
D.    zonecfg -icv dbzone info

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your users are experiencing delay issues while using their main application that requires connections to remote hosts. You run the command uptime and get the flowing output:
1:07am up 346 day(s), 12:03, 4 users, load average: 0.02, 0.02, 0.01
Which command will be useful in your next step of troubleshooting?

A.    ipadm
B.    traceroute
C.    dladm
D.    snoop
E.    arp

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
When upgrading an existing system from Solaris 10 to Oracle Solaris 11, what happens to the datalink names?

A.    They follow the default naming convention for the newly installed version.
B.    They maintain their names.
C.    They are called eth#.
D.    They are called el00g#.
E.    They are left unnamed, to avoid conflicts, and need to be renamed after the installation process is
complete.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have installed software updates to a new boot environment (BE) and have activated that the booting to the new BE, you notice system errors. You want to boot to the last known good configuration. Which option would you use on a SPARC system to boot to the currentBE boot environment?

A.    boot -l currentBE
B.    boot -z rpool/ROOT/currentBE
C.    boot -a Enter the currentBE dataset name when prompted.
D.    boot rpool/ROOT/currentBE
E.    boot -m currentBE
F.    beadm activate currentBE

Answer: F
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QUESTION 1
You need to generate a report on all of the Exchange Server 2007 computers in your Exchange organization. The report must include:
– Operating system versionNumber of processors
– Total physical memory
– Number of storage groups
– Number of mailbox databases
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer | Format-List cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-OrganizationConfig cmdlet.
C.    Run the Test-SystemHealth cmdlet.
D.    Run the Health Check scan in the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After a brief network outage, your monitoring system alerts you that a significant number of SMTP queues on your Hub Transport server are in a retry status. You need to force the Hub Transport
server to send the queued e-mail immediately. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
B.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}
C.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
D.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Some of your companys mobile sales representatives use portable computers that run Microsoft Office Outlook 2007 and are configured to connect to your Exchange Server 2007 organization by using Outlook Anywhere. You need to monitor your environment to verify that these mobile users are able to connect to the Exchange organization, and that performance meets or exceeds the company standard. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Test-MAPIConnectivity
B.    Test-OutlookWebServices
C.    Test-WebServicesConnectivity
D.    Test-ServiceHealth
E.    Get-MailboxStatistics

Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
The servers in your Exchange Server 2007 environment are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Internal users report that they are not receiving external e-mail. You use the Exchange Queue Viewer on your desktop computer to investigate the problem. You do not see any messages in the queue.
You need to be able to view the undelivered messages.
What should you do?

A.    Open the Queue Viewer on Server2.
B.    Run the Get-Queue -Identity Server3 cmdlet.
C.    Modify the Refresh interval (seconds) option in Queue Viewer.
D.    Modify the Number of items to display per page option in Queue Viewer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your native Exchange Server 2007 organization contains 10 Exchange servers. The roles on these servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[18]
You need to generate a single report that indicates the number of disconnected mailboxes in your environment and how much storage space these mailboxes consume. You need to export the report to a file.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-MailboxServer | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-Recipient -RecipientType MailboxUser | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet. Then, open disconnect.csv and remove all entries for active mailboxes.
D.    In the Exchange Management Console, expand the Recipient Configuration work center and select the Disconnected Mailbox node.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You want to gather information about user connectivity on an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server named Exch1. You need to generate a report of all Exch1 mailboxes that displays the latest user logon time. What should you do?

A.    In Performance Monitor, add the Active Client Logons counter with _Total instances from the MSExchangeIS Mailbox object.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-LogonStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization has three Exchange servers, as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[20]
A user in your Exchange organization sends a message to a recipient outside of your company. The recipients address is marc@contoso.com, and Latest Sales Figures is the subject of the message. Your user reports that the message has not been delivered. You need to find out whether the message has left your Exchange organization. Which cmdlet should you run on the Hub Transport server?

A.    Get-Recipient -Filter {PrimarySmtpAddress -eq “marc@contoso.com”}
B.    Get-Message -Filter {Subject -eq “Latest Sales Figures”}
C.    Get-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com”}
D.    Get-queue -Filter {status -eq “retry”}

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to find out the total size of a users mailbox. What should you do?

A.    Run the Database Troubleshooter in the Exchange Troubleshooting Assistant.
B.    Run the Get-MailboxDatabase cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2007 environment. You need to create a performance baseline report. What should you do?

A.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Health Check scan.
B.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Connectivity Test scan.
C.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Exchange 2007 Readiness Check scan.
D.    Use the Performance Troubleshooter tool.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The Hub Transport server role resides on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named ExchHub1. Message tracking is enabled. Written company privacy policy states that the subject line of e-mail messages should not be stored in the tracking log. You need to track e-mail messages from ExchHub1 while complying with company policy. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 -MessageTrackingLogEnabled:$false
B.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 MessageTrackingLogSubjectLoggingEnabled:$false
C.    Set-ReceiveConnector -ProtocolLoggingLevel None
D.    Get-MessageTrackingLog -Subject None

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization contains two Exchange servers. The roles on the two servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[22]
Two users named Marc and Maria have mailboxes on ExchMb1. Marcs computer is on segment A. Marias computer is on segment B. The Exchange servers are on segment C. Marc sends a message to Maria. The message leaves Marcs Outbox and is listed in his Sent Items folder. However, the message is never delivered to Maria’s mailbox. You need to find out the most likely cause of the problem.
What should you do?

A.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
B.    On ExchHub1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
C.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.
D.    On a computer on segment A, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your environment consists of servers that have either Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2003 installed. You create a policy to restrict the number of recipients that are allowed per message. You need to ensure that the policy is enforced for all users. What should you do?

A.    Set organizational limits.
B.    Set server limits.
C.    Set global limits.
D.    Set connector limits.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to configure e-mail retention on three managed custom folders for all mailboxes on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named Exch1.
You perform the following actions.
Create three managed custom folders.
Create managed content settings for each folder, and configure the required retention settings. Create a new managed folder mailbox policy named MailRet. Add each managed custom folder to the MailRet policy.
Configure the managed folder assistant for Exch1.
You need to finish configuring the messaging records management (MRM) retention settings so that the three folders are available for the mailboxes on Exch1.
What should you do?

A.    For each mailbox on Exch1, select the Enable retention hold for items in this mailbox check box.
B.    For each mailbox on Exch1, add the MailRet policy.
C.    Add managed content settings to the three managed custom folders.
D.    Create a new managed folder mailbox policy for each of the three managed custom folders.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A new virus is discovered in your Exchange Server 2007 organization. The file extension is .ext for this virus. The current settings for attachment filtering are configured to delete specified attachments and allow the message to be delivered. However, the virus files are not being filtered. You must stop the spread of this new virus. Neither the attachment nor the e-mail message should reach the e-mail recipient. The message that contains the virus should not generate a non-delivery report (NDR). You need to add a filter for the file extension of the virus. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type ContentType
B.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type FileName
C.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action Reject -RejectMessage “None”
D.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action SilentDelete

Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Your company has five Active Directory sites that are configured as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)
Each site has an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server and Hub Transport server. Currently all outbound e-mail traffic goes through the New York site. You need to reconfigure the mail flow so that all outbound e-mail messages that are sent from users in the Seattle office are sent out of your Exchange organization through ExchHub5 in the Chicago office.
Which cmdlet should you run?
 clip_image002

A.    Set-AdsiteLink -Id DNVR-CHI -ADCost 5
B.    Set-AdSite -Identity Chicago -HubSiteEnabled:$true
C.    New-SendConnector -Name ‘Chicago’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$true -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub5′
D.    Set-SendConnector -Identity ‘Seattle’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$false -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub1′

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your companys Microsoft ActiveSync policy is configured to require inactive users to provide their password every 10 minutes. A company executive requests that her mobile device be exempt from the inactivity timer. You need to exempt the executives mobile device from the timeout policy while maintaining the other corporate policy settings. What should you do?

A.    Remove the corporate ActiveSync policy from the executives mailbox.
B.    Create a new ActiveSync policy that has the required settings, and apply it to the executives mailbox.
C.    Change the password setting on the executives mobile device to override the ActiveSync policy.
D.    Reconfigure the executives mobile device for ActiveSync, and do not apply the corporate ActiveSync policy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You need to configure a public folder to replicate on only Saturdays and Sundays. You also need to ensure that posts will be denied after the folders size reaches 500 MB. Which cmdlet should you run for the public folder?

A.    Set-PublicFolder -StorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
B.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
C.    Set-PublicFolder -MaxItemSize 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
D.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -UseDatabaseRetentionDefaults: $true

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company normally does not allow out-of-office messages to be sent to users outside of your Exchange 2007 organization. The company makes an exception for a business partner named Northwind Traders. The SMTP domain for Northwind Traders is northwindtraders.com. You need to configure your Exchange organization to allow out-of-office messages to be sent to e-mail addresses in the northwindtraders.com domain. What should you do?

A.    Add northwindtraders.com as a remote domain and set the appropriate options.
B.    Add northwindtraders.com as an accepted domain and set the appropriate options.
C.    Create a transport rule and set the appropriate options.
D.    Create a Send connector for northwindtraders.com and set the appropriate options.

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are preparing to configure Outlook Anywhere on your existing Exchange Server 2007 organization. A Mailbox server named ExchMb1 contains all of the mailboxes that will be accessed by users who use Outlook Anywhere. A Client Access server named ExchCas1 is available from the Internet. Users will access Outlook Anywhere with mail.contoso.com as the host (A) name. You need to configure the Exchange organization so that Outlook Anywhere can be used by Microsoft Office Outlook clients from the Internet. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchCas1.
B.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchMb1 on the default Web site.
C.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchCas1 on the default Web site.
D.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchMb1.
E.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchCas1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$false -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.
F.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchMb1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$true -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.

Answer: ACE
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QUESTION 1
When attempting to send a file to another user securely with GPG, which of the following actions must be done?

A.    Encrypt the file using your public key.
B.    Encrypt the file using their public key.
C.    Encrypt the file using your private key.
D.    Encrypt the file using their private key.
E.    Sign the file with your public key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In xorg.conf, which of the following sections is concerned with fonts?

A.    The Fonts section
B.    The Files section
C.    The xfsCodes section
D.    The Graphics section
E.    The modeline section

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done

A.    result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B.    result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.    result: 6 5 4
D.    result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E.    result: 3 2 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
X is running okay but an administrator is concerned that the correct color depth set is not configured. Which of the following commands will show the administrator the running color depth while in X?

A.    xcd
B.    xcdepth
C.    xwininfo
D.    xcolordepth
E.    cat /etc/X11

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A.    LIMIT
B.    FROM
C.    WHERE
D.    IF

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following outputs will the command seq 10 produce?

A.    A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B.    The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C.    The numbers 0 though 9 with one number per line.
D.    The number 10 to standard output.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sticky Keys feature in X?

A.    To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once
B.    To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down
C.    To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit
D.    To repeat the input of a single character

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands can be used to activate a specific network interface?

A.    ipup
B.    net
C.    ifup
D.    netup

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is looking into a new script that they have just received from a senior administrator. In the very first line the administrator notices a #! followed by a path to a binary.
Linux will:

A.    ignore the script.
B.    use that binary to interpret the script.
C.    use that binary to compile the script.
D.    be replaced by that binary.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands should be used to print a listing of emails in the system’s mail queue?

A.    sendmail -l
B.    lpq
C.    mailq
D.    mlq

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Each entry in a crontab must end with which of the following characters?

A.    tab
B.    space
C.    backslash
D.    newline

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files should an administrator edit?

A.    /etc/gnome/greeting
B.    /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C.    /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D.    /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Select THREE).

A.    postfix
B.    procmail
C.    sendmail
D.    exim
E.    smtpd

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
On a dual boot system, every time the system is booted back into Linux the time has been set backward by two hours. Which of the following commands will correct the problem so it will not occur again?

A.    ntpdate pool.ntp.org
B.    date -d ‘two hours’
C.    hwclock –hctosys –localtime
D.    time hwclock

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?

A.    /etc/alias
B.    /etc/mail/forwarders
C.    ~/.alias
D.    ~/.forward

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is attempting to recover corrupted data from a four disk RAID group. However, the administrator does not know which RAID level was used. When investigating the volumes, the administrator notes that there is a duplicate of all data on two of the disks. Which of the following RAID levels was in use?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 5
C.    RAID 6
D.    RAID 10

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given an array with sixteen 300GB drives, a storage administrator needs to know how much raw usable space can be made available while still maintaining a highly available RAID configuration with two hot spares. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM capacity that can be allocated and at which RAID level?

A.    2.1TB, RAID 1
B.    3.6TB, RAID 6
C.    3.9TB, RAID 5
D.    4.8TB, RAID 0

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When gathering simple baseline statistics for a storage array, a storage administrator should gather which of the following? (Select TWO).

A.    Read/Write errors
B.    Number of switches connected
C.    Reads/Writes performed
D.    Read/Write throughput
E.    Port loss of signal counts

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
A server has dual power supplies, dual mirrored hard drives, multi-pathed multiple NICs, and a dual port HBA for access into a SAN. Which of the following components is a single point of failure?

A.    Power supplies
B.    HBA
C.    NICs
D.    System hard drives

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A new storage array is being cabled into a rack. The array has dual controllers, each disk tray has dual power supplies, and there are two in-rack PDUs (C and D). Which of the following is the BEST method for hooking up power?

A.    Connect controller A’s PSUs to PDU C, controller B’s PSUs to D, alternate drive trays between PDUs C and D.
B.    Connect all drive tray PSUs to C and all controller PDUs to D.
C.    Connect both controller’s PSUs to C and all drive tray PSUs to D.
D.    Split all PSU connections between C and D equally.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to assign LUN IDs for two new LUNs from the same storage array. The
first LUN is being presented as LUN 0 to multiple hosts. The second LUN is being dedicated to a single server which is also included in the group of hosts LUN 0 is presented to. Which of the following is the LOWEST LUN ID that can be assigned to the second LUN?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    16

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a direct current only datacenter, which of the following is the MOST important rack installation concern?

A.    Sufficient power capacity
B.    Adequate division of circuits
C.    Adequate humidity control
D.    Grounding of all components

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the MOST important properties to remember when replacing a faulty SFP? (Select TWO).

A.    SFP TX power
B.    Distance rating
C.    Port speed
D.    SFP RX power
E.    Driver version

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST important item a storage administrator should check FIRST for a successful fabric merge?

A.    Faulty SFPs in the switch
B.    Number of aliases in the zoning database
C.    Domain IDs
D.    Total number of ports in the combined fabric

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following protocols transmits a password in clear text on the network during the login process?

A.    SFTP
B.    SSH
C.    Telnet
D.    HTTPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A switch with 8Gb ports has been connected with five hosts running at 4Gb speed and two at 2Gb speed. If the switch is communicating through an ISL with another 8Gb switch where the storage array is connected, which of the following will be the oversubscription ratio of this configuration?

A.    1:1
B.    2:1
C.    3:1
D.    5:1

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator is tasked to programmatically create twenty 64GB LUNs and one 1GB LUN to be assigned to a four node cluster. Which of the following tools should be used to satisfy the request?

A.    CLI
B.    SMI-S
C.    GUI
D.    SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A senior administrator configuring a firewall would like to know the IP address of a frequently accessed website to verify that site was not accidentally blocked in the content filter by the junior administrator’s recently-added range of blocked IP addresses. Which of the following tools would be used to find the IP address of the website?

A.    ipconfig/ifconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    netstat
D.    tracert/traceroute

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user reports lack of network connectivity on a laptop. No hardware changes have recently occurred on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A.    Port
B.    Cable
C.    Firewall
D.    NIC configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A small business would like to install their new storage equipment in a closet off of their pool deck. Which of the following environmental concerns should a technician consider FIRST?

A.    Fire suppression
B.    Humidity control
C.    Sufficient power
D.    Rack loading

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following RAID levels provides the BEST guarantee that data will be retained in the event of drive failure without requiring a rebuild?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 3
D.    RAID 5

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which command prevents Layer 2 loops if the switch stops receiving spanning-tree keepalives on port ge-1/0/1?

A.    [edit protocols rstp]
user@switch# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-block;
}
B.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
user@switch# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-time-out-action {
    block;
    alarm;
  }
}
C.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
user@switch# show
bpdu-block {
  interface ge-1/0/1;
}
D.    [edit protocols rstp]
interface ge-1/0/1
{
  no-root-port;
}

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001
You are attaching into an EX Series switch-1a legacy IP phone that does not support LLDP-MED, but does allow configuration using DHCP, as shown in the exhibit.
Your existing network QoS policies dictate that VoIP traffic must traverse over VLAN 10.
Which two actions put VoIP traffic onto VLAN 10? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure protocols cdp on switch-1.
B.    Manually configure the voice VLAN on the IP phone.
C.    Configure vlan 1 under forwarding-options bootp.
D.    Configure interface ge-0/0/5 under forwarding-options bootp.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
What are three types of port designation specific to Private VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    Promiscuous ports
B.    Transparent ports
C.    PVLAN trunk ports
D.    Designated ports
E.    Isolated ports

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[4]
Looking at the output in the exhibit, why is the BGP neighbor not in Established state?

A.    BGP Refresh is not supported.
B.    Multihop is not configured.
C.    The peer address is not reachable.
D.    Authentication is configured.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about MVRP on EX Series switches are true? (Choose two.)

A.    MVRP can add VLANs on access interfaces.
B.    MVRP can add VLANs on trunk interfaces.
C.    MVRP adds VLANs on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.
D.    MVRP is in transparent mode on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Your customer has five office locations.
Each office location has 20 VLANs configured, one for each department.
Your engineering team has recently secured a government contract with strict regulations which require that engineers be placed into separate workgroups.
These workgroups cannot communicate with each other.
Without changing the primary VLAN assignments, which JUNOS feature meets this requirement with minimal configuration?

A.    Create a series of firewall filters to block users in each workgroup.
B.    Configure a Private VLAN and assign each workgroup a secondary VLAN.
C.    Configure Virtual Private LAN Service to isolate broadcast domain.
D.    Turn off the default BUM (Broadcast, unknown, multicast) flooding mode.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[6]
In the exhibit, switches S1, S2, and S3 have Q-in-Q tunneling configured between Site 1 and Site 2.
Which configuration on switch S1 allows Site 1 and Site 2 to exchange Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), but blocks VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) between Site 1 and Site 2?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling cdp
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp cdp
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling deny vtp
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp deny vtp

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A coffee shop offering free Internet service to customers wants to implement the following security policies:
1. Every customer must agree to a set of terms and conditions before accessing the Internet.
2. Log out customers that are logged in for more than one hour.
3. Log out customers that are idle for more than 5 minutes.
4. Authenticate employee desktop computers with known hardware addresses in the office of the coffee shop to access the Internet without the above restrictions.
The following configuration has been applied to the switch:
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 port 1812
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 secret Am@zingC00f33
set access profile dot1x authentication-order radius
set access profile dot1x radius authentication-server 172.27.14.226
What would you add to implement these policies?

A.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
B.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
C.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
D.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[8]
In the PIM-SM network in the exhibit, all links in the topology have the same IGP metric configured.
Which link will not be on the RPT?

A.    R1-R4
B.    R3-R6
C.    R4-R5
D.    R5-R6

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[10]
In the exhibit, Site 1 is sending traffic on VLANs 100, 200, and 300.
The provider operating switch S1 must configure Q-in-Q tunneling to transport VLANs 100 and 200 to Site2.
The provider must configure switch S1 to block traffic received from site 1 on VLAN 300.
Which configuration accomplishes this goal?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
}
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id [100 200];
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      block-vlans 300;
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  block-vlans 300;
}
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[12]
The four routers in the exhibit are participating in a multi-area OSPF topology.
Node B (in the upper right-hand corner) is an ASBR advertising an external route.
Node A (lower left-hand corner) receives the external route and begins to forward traffic to the ASBR.
How many hops will the packets take through this topology? (Do not count node A.)

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[14]
The phone connected to switch-1 in the exhibit cannot communicate with the rest of the network.
How do you solve this problem?

A.    Add the VLAN named voice as a member of the trunk on interface ge-0/0/12.0.
B.    Configure the voice VLAN on interface ge-0/0/6.0.
C.    Add interface ge-0/0/12.0 to the ethernet-switching-options voip hierarchy.
D.    Configure LLDP-MED for interface ge-0/0/12.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are AS 6573.Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?

A.    “6573.*”
B.    “.*”
C.    “{”
D.    “^$”

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which protocol reachability is advertised by OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    IPv4
B.    IPv5
C.    IPv6
D.    ISO

Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image002
You are using an IBGP route reflector within your network.
Your route reflector has received the 2001:1:2::/64 prefix, but it is not advertising the prefix to its cluster members.
After examining the route reflector, you notice the output shown in the exhibit.
Which configuration statement causes the route reflector to transmit the route to its IBGP peers?

A.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 advertise-inactive
B.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 accept-remote-nexthop
C.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 multipath
D.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 include-mp-next-hop

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

A.    Configure a domain in DNS.
B.    Configure syslog.
C.    Configure SNMP.
D.    Configure DDNS.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have just installed a new ScreenOS device in your network and you want only a select range of IP addresses to have administrative access to the device. Which choice will allow you to accomplish this?

A.    Configure a manager IP.
B.    Configure the management interface.
C.    Configure a management IP on the trust interface.
D.    Configure new system administrators.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A routing table contains an IBGP route for 192.168.0.0/24, a RIP route for 192.168.0.0/23, an OSPF route for 192.168.0.0/22, and a static route for 192.168.0.0/16. When the router receives traffic destined for 192.168.0.1, which route will the router use?

A.    the IBGP route
B.    the OSPF route
C.    the RIP route
D.    the static route

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting telnet traffic destined to IP address 10.10.10.1. You decide to run debug and want to set the flow filter. Which command will show only the telnet traffic going to the 10.10.10.1 address?

A.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1
ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
B.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1 dst-port 23
C.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
D.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have enabled BGP on your ScreenOS device and configured a single EBGP peer. The CLI shows that the BGP connection is transitioning between the CONNECT and ACTIVE states, but never reaching the ESTABLISHED state. What are three reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.)

A.    The peer is blocking traffic destined for TCP port 179.
B.    The peer address is not configured correctly.
C.    The enable statement has not been configured for the peer.
D.    The peer AS number is not configured correctly.
E.    BGP has not been enabled on the virtual router.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based routing table or the destination-based routing table. What should you do?

A.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have the following BGP configuration in place to establish a session with a remote peer over your ethernet4 interface.
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp 65000
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp enable
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor remote-as 65500
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor enable
Which additional statement is necessary to establish the session?

A.    set interface protocol bgp enable
B.    set interface ethernet4 bgp enable
C.    set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp interface ethernet4
D.    set interface ethernet4 protocol bgp

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have only one public IP address available and you must allow external access to three servers on a DMZ network. Which two NAT types would allow you to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP
B.    VIP
C.    NAT-dst
D.    NAT-src

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your ScreenOS device is configured with multiple NAT types.
What is the order of precedence in this situation?

A.    interface-based NAT -> VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT
B.    VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT
C.    MIP -> VIP -> interface-based NAT -> policy-based NAT
D.    MIP -> VIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You must translate a range of public IP addresses to a range of internal IP addresses. Which two mechanisms would you use to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP using masks
B.    VIP using masks
C.    policy-based NAT-dst
D.    policy-based NAT-src

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You enter the following commands:
snoop filter ip dst-ip 1.1.1.10
snoop filter ip src-ip 2.1.1.10
What is the net result of these settings?

A.    Only packets with both a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 and a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
B.    Packets that have either a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 or packets with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
C.    The second command will be ignored since a second filter cannot be added until the first one has been deleted
D.    The second command you entered will overwrite the first command you entered so you will only capture traffic with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which OSPF LSA type is sent from the ABR to describe an ASBR that is in an area to which it is connected?

A.    Type 7
B.    Type 5
C.    Type 4
D.    Type 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button. You are asked to configure a new external BGP peering. You have configured BGP on R1 as shown in the exhibit, however the BGP peering remains in Active state.
Which additional configuration is required on R1 to establish the BGP peering?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    Configure the local-address.
B.    Configure the BGP type as external.
C.    Remove the local-as statement.
D.    Remove the autonomous-system statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which OSPF adjacency state is reached when a hello packet has been sent, but bidirectional communication has not been established?

A.    Down
B.    Init
C.    2-way
D.    ExStart

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Based on the exhibit, which configuration will permit end-to-end routing through the GRE tunnel for R1?
 clip_image001[8]

A.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 12.168.1.1;
B.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;
C.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..1.1;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
D.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..2.2;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF areas allow external routes? (Choose two.)

A.    backbone area
B.    not-so-stubby area
C.    stub area
D.    totally stubby area

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which LSA packet types are originated only by an OSPF ABR router?

A.    Type 2 and Type 3
B.    Type 3 and Type 4
C.    Type 5 and Type 6
D.    Type 6 and Type 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In an OSPF environment, which two configuration parameters are used to determine which router is the DR? (Choose two.)

A.    the router with the highest priority
B.    the router with the lowest priority
C.    the router with the highest RID
D.    the router with the lowest RID

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You have entered the show ospf route command and see routes with a metric type of EXT2.
What does this indicate?

A.    These routes are OSPF interarea routes.
B.    These routes have been redistributed into OSPF and are using a Type 2 metric.
C.    These routes are preferred over the same routes with an EXT1 metric.
D.    These routes are OSPF intra-area routes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You want to verify the frequency and type of SPF calculations on your Junos device.
Which command displays this information?

A.    show ospf database | match log
B.    show spf log
C.    show ospf log
D.    show ospf statistics

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency that is stuck in the ExStart state.
What would be the correct step to resolve the problem?

A.    Look for a mismatched IP subnet or mask.
B.    Determine whether the neighbor is a DR-Other.
C.    Determine whether the hello and dead intervals are the same on both sides.
D.    Review the MTU settings to ensure that they match.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are asked to redistribute routes into OSPF.
Which action accomplishes this task?

A.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf area] hierarchy.
B.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
C.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import or an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are configuring OSPF on a Junos device; however, you have not configured a router ID.
What is the default behavior in this situation?

A.    If the loopback is configured with a 127/8 address, it will be used.
B.    If the loopback is not configured, it will use the interface with the highest IP address.
C.    If the loopback is configured and does not have a usable address, the IP address associated with the first hardware interface is used.
D.    If you configure a dedicated management address and include that interface in OSPF, it will be
used as the router ID.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose two.)

A.    Level 1 adjacencies can form in the same (intra) area only.
B.    Level 2 adjacencies are formed between (inter) areas only.
C.    Level 2 adjacencies can be established either interarea or intra-area.
D.    Level 2 adjacencies can form within the same (intra) area only.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which IS-IS PDU is used to request a retransmission of a missing link-state packet?

A.    the complete sequence number PDU
B.    the partial sequence number PDU
C.    a hello PDU with a request PDU TLV specifying the missing LSP
D.    a hello PDU with a refresh PDU TLV requesting all LSPs

Answer: B
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