2014 Latest EMC E20-390 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?

A.    naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
B.    naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
C.    naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
D.    naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on

Answer: B
Explanation:
The CLI equivalent is the command “naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable”. Once enabled, Access Logix can be disabled only via the CLI command “naviseccli -h <SP_name> sc_off “

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2014 Latest EMC E20-385 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A customer is interested in deploying DD Boost for their current EMC Data Domain system. They are aware of Distributed Segment Processing (DSP) and want to know the data flow when they enable DSP. What describes the data flow from the backup host to the Data Domain system?

A.    Segmenting, fingerprinting, and compression occur on the backup host.
Fingerprint filtering and writes occur on the Data Domain.
B.    Segmenting, fingerprinting, and fingerprint filtering occur on the backup host.
Compression and writes occur on the Data Domain.
C.    Fingerprinting, compression, and fingerprint filtering occur on the backup host.
Segmenting and writes occur on the Data Domain.
D.    Segmenting, fingerprinting, fingerprint filtering, and compression occur on the backup host.
Writes occur on the Data Domain.

Answer: A

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2014 Latest EMC E20-381 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the correct order for removing Control Center Infrastructure components?

A.    Master Agent, ECC Server, Store, Repository
B.    Master Agent, Store, ECC Server, Repository
C.    Master Agent, Store, ECC Server, Repository
D.    Master Agent, Store, Repository, ECC Server

Answer: B

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2014 Latest EMC E20-377 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When determining the journal volume size, which parameters are required?
A.    Rate of change, percentage of sequential writes, and RPO/RTO
B.    Number of snapshots to retain, rate of change, and consistency group type
C.    Rate of change, data set to be replicated, and RPO/RTO
D.    Number of consistency groups, RPO/RTO, and network type

Answer: C

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2014 Latest EMC E20-375 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When determining the journal volume size, which parameters are required?
A.    Rate of change, percentage of sequential writes, and RPO/RTO
B.    Number of snapshots to retain, rate of change, and consistency group type
C.    Rate of change, data set to be replicated, and RPO/RTO
D.    Number of consistency groups, RPO/RTO, and network type

Answer: C

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2014 Latest EMC E20-370 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You have questions regarding file systems and alerts you have received. You want support to dial in to your Dell 2950 CUA directly via a modem. What must you do to allow this?

A.    Log in as gwsetup, go to bash prompt, and issue /usr/sbin/modem enable
B.    Log in as gwsetup, go to bash prompt, and issue sudo /usr/local/storigen/set_serial_mode modem
C.    Log in as gwsetup, go to configuration options, select Toggle modem
D.    Nothing, the modem connection is enabled

Answer: B

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2014 Latest EMC E20-340 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which CLARiiON option can minimize the write performance impact of certain hardware failure conditions?

A.    Checking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if a vault disk fails
B.    Checking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if an SP fails
C.    Unchecking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if an SP fails
D.    Unchecking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if a vault disk fails

Answer: D

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2014 Latest EMC E20-329 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A customer performs weekly full backups and daily incremental backups. A typical full backup is 5 TB. A full backup completes in 10 hours v incremental backup completes in 4 hours. Based on best practices, what is the minimum EMC Data Domain throughput required?

A.    292 – 333 GB/hr
B.    340 – 440 GB/hr
C.    585 – 666 GB/hr
D.    1170-1332 GB/hr

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-206 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Identify the Key flexfields that use qualifiers with their owning applications. (Choose four.)

A.    Location flexfield (Oracle Assets)
B.    Cost Allocation flexfield (Oracle Payroll)
C.    Asset Category flexfield (Oracle Assets)
D.    Payment Terms flexfield (Oracle Payables)
E.    Credit History flexfield (Oracle Receivables)
F.    Accounting flexfield (Oracle General Ledger)

Answer: ABCF
Explanation:
A: Location Flexfield, LOC#, Oracle Assets The location flexfield allows you to specify and track the exact location of your assets. You must assign the state segment qualifier to one segment of your location flexfield. The state segment facilitates property tax reporting. All other segments are optional. You use the same setup windows to create your location flexfield as you do for your other key flexfields.
B:Cost Allocation Flexfield, COST, Oracle Payroll
C: The asset category flexfield allows you to define asset categories and subcategories. For example, you can create an asset category for your computer equipment. You can then create subcategories for personal computers, terminals, printers, and software. You must assign the major category segment qualifier to one segment of your category flexfield. The major category segment facilitates capital budgeting. All other segments are optional. You use the same setup windows to create your asset category flexfield as you do for your other key flexfields.
F:Accounting Flexfield, GL#, Oracle General Ledger
Reference: Oracle Assets User Guide, System Setup

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