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QUESTION 1
You work at a small, but rapidly expanding chain of retail stores. You have a private cloud in place which works well most of the year, but to manage the annual holiday peak load on your Internet store, you have decided to utilize a hybrid cloud as needed. Which two components are required when deploying a hybrid cloud environment? (Choose two.)

A.    vFabric Hyperic
B.    vCloud Connector
C.    vCenter Operations Management Suite
D.    vCloud Director

Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
You have successfully completed the initial deployment of your company’s cloud. Now management wants to make sure everything continues to run well and that you are meeting all of your SLAs. Which vCloud Suite software component will best help you do this?

A.    vCenter Automation Center
B.    vCloud Management Assistant
C.    vSphere Management Assistant Appliance
D.    vCenter Operations Management Suite

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator is deciding on a hybrid cloud solution based on a given set of requirements. The requirements include a single virtual datacenter with logically isolated resources and multi-tenancy capability. Which service option would satisfy the given requirements?

A.    Virtual Private Cloud Service option
B.    Dedicated Cloud Service option
C.    vCloud Public Service option
D.    vCloud Private Service option

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your development team has informed you they frequently run tests which require three VMs and take two days to run. When the tests are complete, there is no further need to keep the VMs or the resources they have been consuming. Which of the following products would best help you manage the requirements of this test environment?

A.    vCloud Director
B.    vFabric Suite
C.    vCenter Orchestrator
D.    vCloud Automation Center

Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You work at a small ISP and need to provide multiple virtual datacenters for your multi-tenancy environment. Which of the following would you do to build a multi-tenancy environment?

A.    Build multiple virtual datacenters using vFabric Suite
B.    Build multiple Org vDCs using vCloud Director
C.    Build multiple Provider vDCs using vCloud Connector
D.    Build multiple External Networks using vCloud Director

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&external Id=1026339

QUESTION 6
After this morning’s high-level, sales-oriented cloud seminar, your colleague is still unclear on the relationship between an Org vDC and a Provider vDC and asks you to help explain why you would set up multiple Provider vDCs. What would you tell him?

A.    You want to implement hardware-based resource tiering
B.    Multiple Provider vDCs are required for organizations which have multiple internal networks
C.    Each Org vDC requires its own Provider vDC
D.    Multiple Provider VDCs would allow for segmenting of identical sets of physical hardware

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vcd-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vcloud.api.doc_51%2FGUID- 6DA11728-5405-4554-BEFD-81E8F4D80161.html

QUESTION 7
Your manager heard on a webinar that vCenter Operations Manager has the ability to create custom groups so that he could better align performance and management decisions with the business. Which two custom groups could you create? (Choose two.)

A.    DRS/HA Cluster
B.    Application
C.    vCenter Datacenter
D.    Line of business

Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.vmware.com/pdf/vcops-56-getting-started-guide.pdf

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QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine that requires a software update. You have not yet tested the update, so you need a back out plan. If the update fails you want to recover the VM to its current state. Which of the following features will help you do this in the least amount of time?

A.    Fault Tolerance
B.    vSphere Replication
C.    Snapshots
D.    vSphere Data Protection

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.vmware.com/support/ws4/doc/preserve_snapshot_ws.html

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When querying the v$sysstat, v$sesstat or v$mystat views, you notice the statistic “workarea executions – onepass”. What is the meaning of this statistic?
A.    It is the cumulative count of work areas running in more than one pass.
B.    It is the total amount of PGA memory dedicated to the work areas using the one pass size.
C.    It is the cumulative count of work areas using the one pass size, where large sorts have spilled to disk.
D.    It is the cumulative count of work areas using the one pass size, which did not have to spill to disk.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which method would you consider while implementing automatic undo management in an Oracle9i Real Application Clusters (RAC) environment?

A.    creating a single undo tablespace with a nondefault block size and placing the data file on the shared raw device
B.    creating a single undo tablespace with the default block size for all instances participating in RAC and placing the data file on the primary node
C.    creating a single undo tablespace with the default block size for all instances participating in RAC and placing the data file on the shared raw device
D.    creating multiple undo tablespaces, one for each instance participating in RAC, and placing the data file on the respective nodes
E.    creating multiple undo tablespaces, one for each instance participating in RAC, and placing the data files on the shared raw device

Answer: E

QUESTION 3
You want to create a database with automatic undo management. Which two options would you consider for the undo tablespace that would hold the undo segments? (Choose two.)

A.    It must not be in logging mode.
B.    It can have nonstandard block size.
C.    It must be a locally managed tablespace.
D.    It must be a dictionary-managed tablespace.
E.    It must be created along with database creation.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option would you use to enable automatic SQL execution memory management?

A.    Set the SGA_TARGET parameter to a nonzero value.
B.    Set the %_AREA_SIZE parameter to a nonzero value.
C.    Set the WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY parameter to Auto.
D.    Set the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to a nonzero value.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Consider the following statement:
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SCHEMA_STATS (-
2> ownname => ‘OE’, –
3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, – 4> method_opt => ‘for all columns size AUTO’);
What is the effect of ‘for all columns size AUTO’ of the METHOD_OPT option?

A.    The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
B.    The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C.    The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D.    The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data distribution, for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement describes the use of the cached execution plans feature?

A.    improves the performance of SQL statements
B.    provides better diagnosis of query performance
C.    avoids the need to set the CURSOR_SHARING parameter
D.    helps maintain cached execution plans even after the SQL statement is aged out of the Library Cache

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You have a tablespace, APP_TBSP, with a non-OMF file. To ease file management, you set the following parameters in the server-persistent parameter file (SPFILE) of your database instance and restart the instance:
DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST = /u01/oradata/orcl
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1 = /u02/oradata/orcl
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_2 = /u03/oradata/orcl
Then, you execute the following command to add a new data file to the tablespace:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE app_tbsp ADD DATAFILE;
What would be the result of this command?

A.    The command fails because there are no name and size specified for the data file.
B.    The command fails because a tablespace cannot have both OMF and non-OMF files.
C.    The command succeeds by adding a new data file with file size equal to that of the existing file.
D.    The command succeeds by adding a new data file with OMF default used for the size and the OMF naming conventions used for the file name.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The backup retention policy is configured as RECOVERY WINDOW 2. You executed the following command in RMAN against your database:
RMAN> REPORT OBSOLETE;
What would you see in the output?

A.    a list of all the expired backups and copies
B.    a list of all those backups and copies that have been deleted within the last two days
C.    a list of all those backups and copies that have been recovered within the last two days
D.    a list of backups and copies that are no longer needed to perform recovery with the range covered by the current retention policy

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Identify the two steps that are performed during native PL/SQL compilation for the PL/SQL blocks other than the top-level anonymous PL/SQL blocks. (Choose two.)

A.    compilation of program into C code
B.    compilation of program into byte code
C.    compilation of program into native code
D.    compilation of program into binary code

Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Online index rebuild functionality can be used to rebuild all the indexes in the options below except _____.

A.    b-tree indexes
B.    bitmap indexes
C.    reverse key indexes
D.    function-based indexes

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Examine the structure of the ORDERS table as shown in the Exhibit. You want to generate a single report that must contain:
– order ID, customer ID, order date, order value
– total order value for a customer ID
– total order value for an order date
In addition to the column list and table name, what would you use in the SELECT statement that is used to generate the report?
 clip_image002

A.    the GROUP BY clause only
B.    the GROUP BY clause with CUBE
C.    the GROUP BY clause with ROLLUP
D.    the GROUP BY clause with GROUPING SETS

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You have defined the MAX_EST_EXEC_TIME resource plan directive in your database. What happens when an operation requires more time than specified in the directive?

A.    The operation will not start.
B.    The session running the operation will be terminated.
C.    The operation will be executed in parts to match the time specified in the directive.
D.    The operation will be started but the value of the directive will be changed automatically to a new value.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
For each value in a column of a table, a _____ index stores the ROWIDs of corresponding rows in one or more tables.

A.    B-tree
B.    Bitmap
C.    Bitmap Join
D.    Reverse Key
E.    Compressed B-tree

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which view would you query to determine the current default temporary tablespace of the database?

A.    V$TEMPFILE
B.    V$DATABASE
C.    V$TABLESPACE
D.    DBA_TABLESPACES
E.    DATABASE_PROPERTIES

Answer: E

QUESTION 15
You have set the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to SIMILAR in your database. You executed the following queries, which differ only in literal values:
SQL> SELECT invno, qty, totamt FROM sales WHERE prodid=645; SQL> SELECT invno, qty, totamt FROM sales WHERE prodid=735;
What would be the effect of the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting if queries were using cost-based optimizer (CBO)?

A.    no attempt to replace literals by bind variables
B.    usage of index-related information by the optimizer is avoided
C.    optimizer is forced to examine the histograms associated with the columns
D.    use of the same execution plan by the optimizer when statistics indicate a skewed data distribution

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
How would you define the Character Set Scanner?

A.    a tool used to identify the characters that require Unicode conversion
B.    a tool used to identify the data loss while changing the character sets of a database
C.    a tool used to identify data that is stored in a character set other than that of the database
D.    a tool used to identify and convert data that is incompatible with the current character set of a database

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You discovered the following messages in a user trace file:
ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 9, block # 21) ORA-01110: data file 9: ‘/oracle/oradata/tech/techdet01.dbf’ ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 2, block # 19) ORA-01110: data file 2: ‘/oracle/oradata/tech/undotbs01.dbf’ Furthermore, you found that some of the redo records not pertaining to block number 19 or 21 of the techdet01.dbf file are missing.
You executed the following command to perform block media recovery:
BLOCKRECOVER DATAFILE 9 BLOCK 21 DATAFILE 2 BLOCK 19;
What would this command do?

A.    It recovers both the blocks successfully.
B.    The recovery fails and no blocks are recovered.
C.    It restores both the blocks but performs no recovery.
D.    It recovers only the block that belongs to the undotbs01.dbf file.
E.    It recovers the block that belongs to the undotbs01.dbf file and restores only block 21 of techdet01.dbf.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit and examine the RMAN configuration. You execute the following command to perform tablespace backup:
RMAN> run
2> {
3> BACKUP TABLESPACE users;
4> }
What would the command do?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    The command fails because there is no channel allocated in the RUN block.
B.    The command successfully performs tablespace backup using default disk channel.
C.    The command successfully performs tablespace backup without using any channel.
D.    The command fails because there is no channel configured using the CONFIGURE command.

Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the meaning of using “character semantics” to create a table?

A.    You use only use CHAR data types.
B.    All columns are a single character wide.
C.    You use single letter names of all columns.
D.    You specify the width of a column in characters, not in bytes.
E.    You use only character type data types (CHAR, NCHAR, VARCHAR2, NVARCHAR2, CLOB, NCLOB).

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Oracle Enterprise Manager can generate database reports. Which three statements are true about this feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It can generate bar chart diagrams.
B.    It generates HTML reports of database objects.
C.    You can extend the reports with your own SQL selects.
D.    It can be run stand-alone, without a repository or agent.

Answer: BCD
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QUESTION 1
What is a description of Governance?

A.    How IT resources will be used to meet goals and deliver business value
B.    a process that ensures individualsare aware of regulations, policies, and procedures that must be followed as a result of senior management decisions management
C.    Who holds the authority to make decisions, determines accountability for actions and responsibility for outcomes, and addresses how expected performance will be evaluated
D.    Possible adverse impacts on reaching goals and can arise from actions taken or not taken

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-027 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about the use of direct path loads when selecting from external tables in a database on a Database Machine?

A.    INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements, executed serially, which select from external tables,
require the APPEND hint to use direct path loading.
B.    CREATE TABLE . . . AS SELECT statements, which select from external tables, attempt to use in
direct path loading automatically.
C.    CREATE TABLE . . . AS SELECT statements, which select from external tables, require the APPEND
hint to use direct path loading.
D.    INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements, executed serially, which select from external tables,
are unable to use direct path loading.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A CTAS (Create table as select) will always use direct path (B, not C) load but IAS (Insert as select) statement will not. In order to achieve direct path load with an IAS statement you must add the APPEND hint to the command (A, not D).
Direct path loads can also run in parallel. You can set the parallel degree for a direct path load either by adding the PARALLEL hint to the CTAS or IAS statement or by setting the PARALLEL clause on both the external table and the table into which the data will be loaded.
Once the parallel degree has been set at CTAS will automatically do direct path load in parallel but an IAS will not. In order to enable an IAS to do direct path load in parallel you must alter the session to enable parallel DML.
Note:
* Parallel Direct Path Load
The key to good load performance is to use direct path loads wherever possible. A direct path load parses the input data according to the description given in the external table definition, converts the data for each input field to its corresponding Oracle data type, then builds a column array structure for the data. These column array structures are used to format Oracle data blocks and build index keys. The newly formatted database blocks are then written directly to the database, bypassing the standard SQL processing engine and the database buffer cache. Reference: Best Practices for Implementing a Data Warehouse on the Oracle Exadata Database Machine; Using CTAS & Exchange Partition Replace IAS for Copying Partition on Exadata

» Read more

2014 Latest CompTIA 225-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A.    Documents, images, and storage medium
B.    Resolution, compression, and memory
C.    Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
D.    Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When designing the input environment for the proposed Document Management System (DMS), which of the following MUST be considered?

A.    Index fields
B.    Storage media
C.    Type of printers
D.    Postscript (PS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Company.com needs to deliver objects over the web and ensure that only the authorized user can view them even if disconnected from the system. What technology would apply?

A.    Storage management
B.    Digital Rights Management (DRM)
C.    Watermarking
D.    Web control management

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company.com would like to capture incoming invoices and process them through their Accounts Payable (AP) system. Which system would BEST accomplish this?

A.    Image enabled workflow oriented system
B.    SQL database system
C.    Intranet based form processing system
D.    Records management system

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An accounting firm stores electronic images of its clients tax returns in the Electronic Document Management System (EDMS). The company should be MOST concerned with:

A.    document format.
B.    network security.
C.    application integration.
D.    network bandwidth.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Many of the documents to be scanned by Company.com are sales invoices with a yellow background. A feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:

A.    image enhancement.
B.    deskew.
C.    color dropout.
D.    color enhancement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A potential risk to a project could be:

A.    regular Project Manager meetings.
B.    a risk analysis session.
C.    creating an assumptions document.
D.    allowing scope creep.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A client receives over 2,000 laser printed purchase orders daily from 1,188 customers. The scanning staff will scan, index, and perform quality assurance of the documents. Which of the following is the LEAST labor intensive method to perform indexing?

A.    ICR software
B.    Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) software
C.    OCR software
D.    Heads-down indexing

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:

A.    work monitoring.
B.    pending or holding items.
C.    support for multiple queues based on work type.
D.    sorting queues in date order.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?

A.    All-hands meetings and intranet postings
B.    Ethernet and TCP / IP
C.    E-mail and FTP
D.    Project charter and project plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Assuming an average image size of 105 KB, a 700 MB CD -R contains how many images?

A.    10,826
B.    7,580
C.    6,826
D.    15,020

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is required as part of a records storage management solution?

A.    Full-text search and retrieval
B.    Boxes of paper
C.    Retention schedule
D.    Enterprise content management software

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Company.com is generating 10,000 documents a month and is considering if they should goforward with an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution or continue with the existing paper-based storage strategy. Considering the cost of both strategies the customer should:

A.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the long term.
B.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive but easier to implement and has greater
long term benefits.
C.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the near term but becomes less expensive
in the long term.
D.    stay with the current solution because it is considerably less expensive in the long term.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned?

A.    Error handling
B.    Scan-to-folder
C.    Records management
D.    Tracking capability

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Company.com is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process?

A.    The customer has a document capture process.
B.    The customer does not have a records management process.
C.    The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D.    The customer has an informal records management process.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the access level of a user that belongs to both the Administrators and Users groups?

A.    User
B.    Administrator
C.    Power User
D.    Remote Desktop User

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following contains the user profile directory for Microsoft Windows 2000 and XP?

A.    Users
B.    My Documents
C.    Documents and Settings
D.    Application Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?

A.    The document is set to hidden.
B.    The document is locked.
C.    The document was saved as a system document.
D.    The document is owned by the first user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following will MOST likely happen if a laser printer displays `15% fuser remaining’?

A.    The printer will print according to specification.
B.    The printer will stop printing immediately.
C.    The printer will take longer to print.
D.    The printer will print blank sheets of paper.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when removing a paper jam?

A.    Open all the doors in the printer.
B.    Clear the print queue.
C.    Turn the printer off.
D.    Take the printer offline.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following does an out-of-memory error indicate on a printer?

A.    A faulty memory module in the printer.
B.    A postscript print job has been sent to the printer.
C.    A large print job has been sent to the printer.
D.    The printer firmware needs to be updated.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important consideration?

A.    Operating system type of the connected PCs
B.    Location of the wireless router
C.    Number of PCs that will access the network
D.    Number of available Ethernet ports on the router

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A technician suspects the AC voltage into a PC power supply is bad. Which of the following tools would MOST likely be used to confirm the diagnosis?

A.    Multimeter
B.    Oscilloscope
C.    Cable tester
D.    Power supply tester

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician needs to ping a client’s machine that the technician is working on, to ensure that the network card is functioning correctly. Which of the following IP addresses should be used?

A.    10.76.0.1
B.    127.0.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    255.255.255.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).

A.    TELNET
B.    SSH
C.    POP3
D.    FTP
E.    HTTPS

Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?

A.    Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B.    Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C.    Upgrade the out-of-range users’ SSID searching software.
D.    Enable network sharing on the users’ computers that are within range.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A technician turns on a PC and before the computer boots up, the technician is prompted for a password. The technician does not know the password. Which of the following can the technician do to allow access to the PC? (Select TWO).

A.    Set the clear password jumper on the motherboard.
B.    Enter the BIOS setup and select the clear password setting.
C.    Remove the power cord from the power supply and then plug it back in.
D.    Power cycle the PC.
E.    Remove the CMOS battery for 15 minutes.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A technician is renaming files on a PC from a command prompt and is currently in the root of drive
C:. Which of the following commands should the technician use to move to a different directory?

A.    CD
B.    DIR
C.    MD
D.    RD

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is dispatched to a malware infected system. Upon arrival, the technician notices the malware’s pop-up on the screen. Which of the following boot methods would the technician utilize?

A.    Reboot in Safe Mode
B.    Reboot in Recovery Console
C.    Reboot in Last Known Good Configuration
D.    Reboot in System Debug Mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A technician is dispatched to a system that will not go beyond the Windows XP splash screen. Which of the following, after restart, would allow the technician to load Windows XP?

A.    Press F6, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
B.    Press F8, select Debug mode, login
C.    Press F8, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
D.    Press F6, select Debug mode, login

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table.
You have to display ORDER_ID, ORDER_DATE, and CUSTOMER_ID for all those orders that were placed after the last order placed by the customer whose CUSTOMER_ID is 101.
Which query would give you the desired output?
 clip_image002[1]

A.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(order_date)
FROM orders) AND
Customer_id = 101;
B.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ANY (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
C.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date > ALL (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer_id = 101);
D.    SELECT order_id, order_date FROM orders
WHERE order_date IN (SELECT order_date
FROM orders
WHERE customer id = 101);

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You have assigned rights profiles directly to the uses frank and now you want to add another profile. Which command enables you to list profiles directly assigned to frank?

A.    userattr profiles frank
B.    profiles – p frank
C.    useratter -p frank
D.    profiles frank

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26502_01/html/E36219/rights-1.html (see the example 9-1)

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